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Jun 19 2008, 07:18 AM
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#1
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Newbie ![]() Group: Members Posts: 6 Joined: 5-February 07 Member No.: 38,298 |
Anyone know the answer to this? For example, lets say I have a card with 15% interest on purchases and 20% on cash advances - if I get hit with a $30 over the limit fee, would this accumulate interest at 15% or 20%? (or higher?)
Any thoughts? |
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Jun 20 2008, 05:53 AM
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#2
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Advanced Member ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() Group: [HOSTED] Posts: 135 Joined: 18-December 07 Member No.: 54,935 |
I think this would be at the 20% amount, being that it is technically a cash advance, but I'm not completely sure....Just take into consideration that credit card companies are out to make money so they will charge the most they are able to by law,
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Jul 5 2008, 11:56 PM
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#3
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Newbie ![]() Group: Members Posts: 7 Joined: 5-July 08 Member No.: 64,650 |
The "over-limit" fee's are 99% considered cash advances. They will charge you the 15% on the actual purchase price if you are late, and 20% on the $30 they lent you regardless of payment time. Overdrafts suck!!
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